A THOUGHT  FOR TODAY:
If a homological adjective is one that is true of itself, e.g.  "polysyllabic", and a heterological adjective is one which is not true of  itself, e.g., "bisyllabic", then what about "heterological?" Is it heterological  or not? -Grelling's Paradox....which, of course, leads logically to:
Naive Set Theory (NST) , defined as the theory of predicate logic with a binary predicate
 , with the following as axioms:
, with the following as axioms:  for all expressions P(x) with just x free for all expressions P(x) with just x free
 for P(x). Then by existential instantiation and universal instantiation we have
 for P(x). Then by existential instantiation and universal instantiation we haveSo, Naive Set Theory is a Metaprime Example?
Thanks, Pheas.  (I think!)
 

 
 

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