A THOUGHT FOR TODAY:
If a homological adjective is one that is true of itself, e.g. "polysyllabic", and a heterological adjective is one which is not true of itself, e.g., "bisyllabic", then what about "heterological?" Is it heterological or not? -Grelling's Paradox....which, of course, leads logically to:
Naive Set Theory (NST) , defined as the theory of predicate logic with a binary predicate , with the following as axioms:
- for all expressions P(x) with just x free
So, Naive Set Theory is a Metaprime Example?
Thanks, Pheas. (I think!)
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